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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

12.06.2025 01:52

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why are people so rude to debt collector’s? I am one and I am so tired of being mistreated. We are under paid and then have to deal with the most ungrateful, and disrespectful people. We aren’t customer service. Don’t get mad at us because YOU owe.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Is it true that most people in Québec are bilingual in French and English? If so, why do they often identify as monolingual?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why are conservatives banning liberal books? Why are conservatives so offended by the teaching of racism and other topics?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.